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Hello and welcome to my channel Vice
Rhino. Here today we're looking at

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a video where Wes Huff of Apologetics
Canada is being interviewed about whether or not

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the Bible has been corrupted over time, which is really one of those questions

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that I don't understand why it's still
being asked so frequently. I mean,

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I guess I know why people who
believe that the Bible is the inerrent word

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of God need to deal with the
fact that the Bible has been corrupted without

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admitting that. For as long as
we've had enough documentation to figure it out,

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we've had a record of the Bible
being corrupted. So we'll get to

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watch as they downplay the indisputable record
that we have of scribes making mistakes,

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adding in new things and taking out
old things in an attempt to salvage infallibility

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in spite of the overwhelming evidence of
fallibility. Anyway, there's only a couple

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of weeks left on the sale at
my merch store, so go to Merch

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dot vice Rhino dot com and use
code Rhino fifteen a checkout for fifteen percent

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off your order. Onto the video. The big objections I think in this

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area is that some people might say, how you know that the Bible just

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hasn't been corrupted, so you're talking
copies. There are Christian scribes of many,

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many, many generations, however,
that the text of the Bible isn't

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just Chinese whispers, of its fine
where it's slowly being changed to suit political

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and theological agendas. First to address
what is likely the elephant in the room

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for a good chunk of my North
American viewers in the UK, a lot

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of people call the telephone game Chinese
whispers. I don't know why, and

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apparently neither do they. Aside from
some speculation about the inaccuracy of verbal meth

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has passed on over the Great Wall
of China, but given that it seems

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to have originated during the Cold War, a time when the UK had a

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bit of an issue with espionage from
the USSR and China. It seems more

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likely that it originated out of general
xenophobia, but that doesn't really matter.

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I just thought it would be weird
to let it go completely unaddressed. Back

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on topic, how do we know
that the Bible was not subject to the

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telephone game? Well, in short, we actually know the exact opposite.

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It most definitely was changed as it
was passed on from scribe describe, from

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congregation to congregation, from country to
country. And we know this because for

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an ancient book, we actually do
have a pretty good manuscript tradition, so

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we can be fairly confident that the
Bible we have today has been reasonably faithfully

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pieced together to match what the originals
likely said. But it is completely undeniable

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that it has changed. It's just
a question of what changes were made and

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how many of them were there in
the mess of manuscripts that you're describing.

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What's your sense as to how you'd
respond to that? Is this problem for

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Christianity? No, it's not.
It depends which brand of Christianity we're talking

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about. Wes happens to believe in
biblical inerrancy. So while I have no

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doubt that he has some convoluted way
that he accounts for the known errors in

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his inerrant book. The fact of
the matter is that the errors of the

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Bible are well documented and so are
a problem for inerrancy. Pretty much by

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definition, that's the end of discussion, right, No, that is not

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the end of the discussion. I
know he's being tongue in cheek here,

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but really, if the Bible were
actually inerrant, that should be the end

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of the discussion. The fact that
you have to explain away the errors that

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are impossible to ignore demonstrates that the
Bible is not inerrant. Among apologists that

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I've encountered who believe in the inerrancy
of the Bible but still acknowledge that there

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are errors in the manuscripts, the
typical way to reconcile this is to appeal

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to the originals. The originals are
inerrant, but then fallible humans got their

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hands on them and copied them down, sometimes making mistakes, sometimes outright inventing

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passages to their theological agendas, sometimes
deleting passages to suit their theological agendas.

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But none of that matters. It's
the originals that are an errant. You

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know, those documents that we don't
have access to and so can't examine to

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confirm that they are an errant.
How convenient, But this doesn't even come

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close to solving the problem for starters. Why are the bits that we know

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we're later insertions still included in modern
Bibles? If it was the originals that

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were in errant and not the later
copies, did God reinspire a later scribe

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deciding that his perfect word needed an
update in that particular moment? If so,

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why was it good enough for the
first generation of Christians but not the

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later Christians? And when was the
cutoff point? When did God stop inspiring

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updates? And another thing that you
keep hearing about biblical inerrancy is that it's

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not only that it's inerrant, it's
that it is unchanging. Except we know

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that it did change several times.
When did those changes stop? Well?

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An example I've used in the past
is the NIV translation inserting words into the

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text that fix some of the apparent
errors, with those changes being removed in

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the twenty eleven version. So we
know that as recently as two thousand and

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eleven, God's unchanging word was changing, But why were those changes wrong?

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Could the NIV translators not have been
inspired by God to fix Jesus mustard seed,

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gaff and Holy Hell. I should
have come across this earlier. But

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there's a whole ass movement of Christians
who opposed the two eleven NIV because basically

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it's two woke. It made thousands
of changes to the nineteen eighty four version

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in order to use gender neutral language, like referring to Levitical priests in the

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Old Testament, when the more accurate
translation would be the priests of the Sons

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of Levi. So the two eleven
NIV changed some verses to be more accurate

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to the manuscripts, like removing your
from Matthew thirteen thirty two, but then

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turned around and changed thousands of others
to be less accurate to the manuscripts.

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And as far as I can tell, the people who are arguing against the

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two eleven NIV are still fine using
the nineteen eighty four version with its apologetically

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motivated inaccuracies. So were the translators
who added your into Matthew thirteen thirty two

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inspired by God to do so?
Then why did God not inspire the translators

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of other versions to do the same
with theirs. And how about Jeremiah seven

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twenty two. The NIV added the
word just into that one, which completely

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changed its meaning. In the ESV, it is for in the day that

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I brought them out of the land
of Egypt, I did not speak to

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your fathers or command them concerning burnt
offerings and sacrifices. But in the NIV,

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both the nineteen eighty four and the
twenty eleven editions, it is for

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when I brought your ancestors out of
Egypt and spoke to them, I did

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not just give them commands about burnt
offerings and sacrifices. That one word just

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is only found in the NIV and
its offshoots no other translations, and it

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makes the verse mean pretty much the
exact opposite of what it means without it

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was that addition inspired by God?
Was it not? How can we tell

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which ones are and which ones aren't. And if modern translations are not inspired

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by God, then again I'm left
wondering where the cutoff point was where text

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could be changed, and that change
could have been inspired by God. Yeah,

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you know what, Biblical inerrancy becomes
a ridiculous proposition if you actually take

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it seriously. You refer to Chinese
whispers, or it's sometimes called the telephone

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game. That is a single line
transmission. It's single in the sense that

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it's me whispering into your ear and
then you whispering to someone else's ear.

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That's not true with copying process of
the New Testament. It's not a single

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line of transmission. It's multiple lines
of transmission, and it's done by different

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authors writing in different locations to different
audiences who are likewise in different to a

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graphable location, and then copyists and
strides they copy that text and they're in

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different locations, writing to different audiences
or themselves in different locations. Yes and

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no, so yes, the authors
of the New Testament did come from different

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regions, and we're writing letters to
people who lived in different regions. But

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that doesn't actually give us multiple lines
of transmission of the message itself, because

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we don't actually have the documents from
all these different regions, not for several

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centuries at any rate. For the
first three hundred years of Christianity's existence,

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we have a grand total of one
hundred and twenty four New Testament manuscripts,

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and every last one of them comes
from Egypt. Now, admittedly this next

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bit is speculation on my part,
but given that the religion would change as

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it spread geographically, as is well
documented in the Bible itself. I mean,

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after all, most of Paul's epistles
are him fighting tooth and nail against

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such changes, which serves to demonstrate
that those changes were in fact happening.

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But given that, it stands to
reason that the church in Egypt would have

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been different from the churches in various
other locations throughout the ancient world, and

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given that we have a well documented
manuscript tradition showing that scribes would at least

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sometimes feel free to alter the text
to fit better with their theology, it's

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all but guaranteed that a letter being
copied in Egypt would have had different change

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is than one copied and say Corinth. And if an orthodoxy emerged where certain

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beliefs and practices were elevated over others, and this orthodoxy, let's hypothetically say

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it managed to become the official religion
of the most powerful empire in the world

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for several centuries, and this orthodoxy
has a history of going to great length

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to suppress any doctrine that they deemed
to be heretical, then it's not outside

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the realm of plausibility that they would
have destroyed any manuscripts that they deemed to

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be heretical, thus leaving us with
just the one line of transmission from Egypt

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that they actually approved of. And
this destruction of materials would likely be both

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active and passive. Actively they destroyed
manuscripts that they thought were heretical. Well,

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passively, they just don't copy those
manuscripts, allowing the existing ones to

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be lost to the sands of time, all well overwhelming the archaeological record with

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obsessive copying of the official Orthodox versions. Again, this is speculation on my

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part. We don't actually know what
happened to those manuscripts, but such behavior

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would definitely not have been out of
the ordinary for the Roman Catholic Church,

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and it does nicely explain why we've
only ever found manuscripts from Egypt for the

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first three centuries of Christianity. And
so you almost have layers upon layers to

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the multifaceted aspect of the text.
So it's not a single line of transmission,

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it's a multiple line of transmission injected
with steroids. No, it's multiple

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lines of transmission as filtered through a
single bottleneck line of transmission in Egypt.

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If you play the telephone game and
have multiple parallel games going at the same

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time, but before you get to
the end, all of those parallel games

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have to go through one person who
gets to unilaterally decide which of the parallel

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games they want to transmit, and
may or may not transmit them faithfully.

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Then you don't get to claim that
the existence of the parallel games means that

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whatever came out at the end must
be accurate to the originals. When it

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came to scribes, they weren't asking
for their qualifications, whether they had a

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diploma from Pharisee University. They wanted
you to be able to get a copy

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of the text. And so this
resulted in the spread of these Christian documents

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really far, really quickly. And
yes, that resulted in things like scribal

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errors and mistakes from handwriting. Yes, and this is a problem because,

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as you said, we know that
the text spread very far, very fast,

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but we don't have any of the
far flung texts. We only have

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the Egyptian ones. And as you
yourself pointed out, the early scribes were

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not trained, some weren't even literate, and we're just copying as best they

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could, and this resulted in many
many errors entering the text. And what's

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more, the time period for which
we have the fewest manuscripts is also the

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time period when most of the scribes
would have been amateurs, making mistakes and

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altering the text. So ultimately we
don't know what competing copies of the same

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text were floating around out in the
world. We just know the ones that

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survived. And we do know that
early Christianity was quite diverse, and belief

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mostly from the writings of proto Orthodox
Church fathers who were trying to counter the

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claims made by the competing sects,
with the books that they wrote to count

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to them often being our only source
for their existence in the first place,

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as the competing Christian documents were either
outright destroyed or just allowed to die a

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death of neglect. But it also
means that pretty early on, within a

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couple of centuries, you have copies
of the Gospels of Acts of the business

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of Paul and Peter and James and
Jude in places all over North Africa,

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throughout the Middle East, even into
Asia and the British Aisle. That phrase

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in a couple of centuries is doing
a lot of heavy lifting. And you've

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got to assume that by couple he
does not mean two, because it's not

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for at least three centuries anyway.
By in a couple of centuries he seems

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to mean not until after the Roman
Empire had officially become Christian. So yes,

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you find Christian documents spread throughout the
Christian Empire. What else would you

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expect. And so the accusation of
the da Vinci Code one that they inserted

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the divinity of Christ into the Bible. I don't know of any atheists who

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take the da Vinci Code series sleep. The Book of John, at the

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very least, is quite clear about
the divinity of Jesus. Sure there are

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books onto which his divinity was imposed, and even then it depends on what

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you mean by divinity. But with
all this in mind, it's still a

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point of fact that it took a
council organized by the Roman emperor to decide

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once and for all that Jesus was
in fact divine. I feel like that's

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not the kind of thing that would
be necessary if he actually were the nature

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of how the text was spread out
through und the ancient world is that no

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one person or no one group could
have controlled the text at any one point

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in time. So I guess the
fact that the vast, vast majority of

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manuscripts to ever exist were directly commissioned
by the Roman Catholic Church doesn't matter,

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because I'm fairly certain that they had
near universal control over which books got copied

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and which manuscripts to copy those books
from, for somewhere around a thousand years.

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Sure, occasionally someone would translate a
Bible or a book of the Bible

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into a vernacular language, but the
Catholic Church would actively seek out and destroy

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such translations in order to maintain control. If the Bible is written in a

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language that requires you to be highly
educated in order to understand it, then

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that puts a barrier to the common
people reading it for themselves and coming to

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their own conclusions. The common people
must filter their understanding through their local priest,

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who has access to the approved official
copy of the Bible from the Roman

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Catholic Church. It was like shrapnel. They were blown everywhere all over the

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ancient world. The officially approved versions
were blown everywhere all over the ancient world.

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It's still more than a little suspicious
that before the Roman Catholic Church became

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a thing. Only the Egyptian manuscripts
seemed to have survived, despite the fact

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that we know that these books were
circulating far and wide at that time period.

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In order for Constantine to have wanted
to insert anything, he would have

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had to go and dig up copies
of, say, the Gospel of John,

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buried in the stands of Egypt,
hundreds of years before he was even

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born. Conversely, if he didn't
want to insert things into the text,

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but just preferred one version of Christianity
over another one, all he would have

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had to do was declare that only
the version of Christianity that he liked was

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the one that was allowed to persist, and then competing versions throughout the Empire

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would either be absorbed or eliminated,
and competing texts could be destroyed or ignored.

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I am not of the opinion that
Constantine made any insertions to the text.

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In fact, my understanding is that
Constantine, especially in his early days,

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was rather lackluster in his Christianity and
didn't much care about the various denominational

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fights, calling the Council of Nicea
mainly as a way to get them to

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shut up about their disagreements and stop
trying to get him to adjudicate them.

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And keep in mind, we're talking
about fourth century stuff here with Constantine,

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meaning that the time we start to
actually see ancient manuscripts coming from regions outside

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of Egypt corresponds with the time that
one sect of Christianity became politically dominant over

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the other sects. So, yeah, I am not saying that Constantine dug

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up a bunch of manuscripts, had
them edited, and then reburied them,

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as you seem to be implying in
this argument. I'm saying that after Constantine

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gave one sect of Christianity political power, they used that power to suppress competing

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sects of Christianity, and part of
that suppression probably involved the destruction of competing

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manuscripts. It's not feasible and it's
not probable. We know from the history

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of how the ex spread. We
know what Christians were reading in the second

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century, and in the third,
and the four and in the fifth.

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Yeah, actually we do know a
lot of what they were reading. Then

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there was the Signs Gospel, the
Gospel of Thomas, the Apocalypse of Adam,

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the Egerton Gospel, the Epistle of
Barnabas, the Sophia of Jesus Christ.

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00:16:29.799 --> 00:16:32.720
The Oh wait, none of those
are books that made it into the

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Bible, are they? They are
all apocryphal, and yet some of these

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books potentially predate the canonical Gospels.
We know that there was a great diversity

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of Christian belief that predated the Roman
Catholic Church, and we know that these

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competing sects died out, many of
them in the wake of Christianity gaining its

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power in Rome. These other sects
would have viewed the books that we call

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apocryphal as God inspired scripture, and
we know for a fact that many of

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them were suppressed and wiped out by
the Roman Catholic Church. For some of

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the apocryphal books, the only knowledge
we have of them comes either from orthodox

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and proto Orthodox church leaders writing counter
apologetics against them, or from locations where

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the books apparently were hidden and buried
for safekeeping in what appears to be an

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attempt to preserve them from their impending
destruction. This whole argument completely ignores the

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fact that we know that the Church
actively suppressed any document that it considered to

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be heretical, So why would they
not do the same from manuscripts of canonical

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Gospels that had variations that they also
considered heretical, not just in Greek and

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Hebrew, but in Latin and in
Coptic and an old Church Slavonic, and

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it's a Hitic, Boheric, you
know, you name the language. If

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it was an agent world, the
Christians were trying to translate it into Yes,

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that is correct and fun. Little
fact about that. The Latin text

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00:17:48.519 --> 00:17:52.759
that was used by the Church well
into the twelfth century was one called the

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Vestus Latina. But a guy named
Jerome translated his own version of the text

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into Latin in the fourth century,
and when the churches in North Africa heard

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that version read aloud, there were
literal riots and protests in the churches because

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00:18:04.839 --> 00:18:08.680
of how different it was from the
Vestus Latina. And that version that was

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so different from the previous one that
it literally caused riots is now known as

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00:18:14.279 --> 00:18:18.160
the Latin Vulgate and has been the
official Latin version of the text since the

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ninth century, when Charlemagne sought to
standardize the texts. Yes, I am

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aware that I just said that the
Vestus Latina was used into the twelfth century,

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which is later than the ninth century. But it turns out standardization of

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00:18:29.200 --> 00:18:32.160
texts wasn't all that easy in a
time when it could take months or even

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00:18:32.240 --> 00:18:36.079
years to travel across Europe. And
also, Charlemagne wasn't the pope, so

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while he did have considerable influence over
several church reforms, he was not completely

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00:18:40.920 --> 00:18:45.359
successful. My point is that the
official Latin Bible that is still used by

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the Catholic Church today was such a
drastic change from the previous version that it

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caused riots. So to claim that
changes were not being made to the text

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for theological or political reasons is at
best naive, and with translated version it's

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00:19:00.640 --> 00:19:04.680
even easier to do. It's impossible
to directly translate from one language into another

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without there being at least some interpretation
and ambiguity. Even the simplest concepts don't

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00:19:10.839 --> 00:19:15.240
translate cleanly. Ask any Canadian school
child for whom French is not their first

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language what the phrase je mapel means. They will likely say that it means

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my name is when a direct word
for word translation would be I am called.

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But because we don't introduce ourselves in
English with the phrase I am called,

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the phrase gets mistranslated in order to
better capture the actual meaning, rather

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than just directly translating the words.
Well, what happens when there is doubt

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or ambiguity about the actual meaning of
a phrase. In an ideal situation,

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whoever is doing the translating chooses the
meaning that they think fits the intentions of

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the original author best, regardless of
their personal beliefs on the matter. In

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reality, though, they are likely
to have chosen the interpretation that fits best

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with their theological beliefs. Also,
it is again worth mentioning that we don't

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actually have any of the non Egyptian
manuscripts from any of these translations from the

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first three hundred years of Christianity's existence, so it's not like we can just

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use them to compare with the manuscripts
that we do have to see what changes

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might have made in different regions.
That history is just so badanced. Even

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00:20:11.680 --> 00:20:15.880
under Roman persecution, the Christian message
was just spread far and wide. It

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00:20:15.920 --> 00:20:19.200
bears mentioning at this point that,
well, there were sporadic bouts of localized

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Christian persecution in the Roman Empire,
such as neuroblaming the Christians for the Fire

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of Roman sixty four CE, there
were no empire wide persecutions of the Christians

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00:20:27.559 --> 00:20:32.920
until three hundred and three CE,
and that lasted until three hundred eleven CE,

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00:20:32.960 --> 00:20:36.359
for a grand total of eight years. Now, don't get me wrong,

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00:20:36.400 --> 00:20:38.799
I'm not trying to minimize the suffering
of early Christians who were persecuted,

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00:20:40.039 --> 00:20:44.000
nor am I defending the act of
persecution. I merely point this out because

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apologists like to imply, if not
outright claim, that Christians suffered a systemic,

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empire wide persecution for the first three
hundred years of their existence, which

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00:20:52.400 --> 00:20:57.359
is just not the case, and
any accusation of full scale corruption it would

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have been hard to do today,
It was impossible to do that. Why

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00:21:02.279 --> 00:21:04.200
Why would it be harder to accomplish
something like that back in a time when

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00:21:04.200 --> 00:21:07.799
you wouldn't be called out for it
immediately on social media and where there isn't

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00:21:07.799 --> 00:21:11.920
an electronic record of all the changes
and revisions that you might make to a

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00:21:11.960 --> 00:21:15.119
digital text. I think that sort
of thing is way harder to get away

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00:21:15.119 --> 00:21:18.400
with today, especially since the widespread
adoption of the Internet, than it would

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00:21:18.400 --> 00:21:21.960
have been back then. And even
then they didn't completely get away with it.

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00:21:22.319 --> 00:21:25.440
They got away with it enough to
maintain and expand their political power and

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00:21:25.519 --> 00:21:29.359
influence. But looking back on it, now we know that there were all

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00:21:29.480 --> 00:21:33.200
sorts of shenanigans going on, and
that the Catholic Church was undeniably a corrupt

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00:21:33.319 --> 00:21:37.759
organization that was bent on gaining and
keeping as much power and control as they

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00:21:37.799 --> 00:21:41.599
could. Why would you expect that
the destruction of heretical documents would be off

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00:21:41.599 --> 00:21:45.440
the table when we know for a
fact that they engaged in the destruction of

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00:21:45.480 --> 00:21:49.720
heretical documents. That's it for this
one. Today's comment to the day comes

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just from Jimmy James eight one sixty
four, who says Amelek and his tribe

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00:21:53.720 --> 00:21:56.799
were Nephelim. But I assume you
don't know what that is either. If

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00:21:56.839 --> 00:22:02.519
Nephelim were still here today, no
would survive, study for yourself or remain

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00:22:02.559 --> 00:22:06.039
ignorant and continue to look like a
fool. Yeah, you know what.

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00:22:06.079 --> 00:22:10.000
I've seen this claim before, and
there's a few problems with it. First,

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00:22:10.160 --> 00:22:12.240
there is zero evidence to support the
idea that there were a race of

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00:22:12.279 --> 00:22:18.720
giants living back then, with the
only evidence being mediocre photoshop jobs found in

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00:22:18.759 --> 00:22:22.880
YouTube videos. Second, I have
never found an adequate justification for believing that

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00:22:22.920 --> 00:22:26.960
the authors of the Bible thought that
the Amalekites were Nephelim. They are mentioned

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00:22:26.000 --> 00:22:30.680
alongside each other once in numbers thirteen, where the Hebrew Spies give the report

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00:22:30.680 --> 00:22:33.200
of who lived in the Promised Land, but they never called the Amalekites Nephelim.

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00:22:33.440 --> 00:22:37.240
They're just both groups of people who
live in the land that they're about

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00:22:37.240 --> 00:22:41.119
to conquer. Third Genesis six speaks
rather positively about the Nephelim, saying the

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00:22:41.200 --> 00:22:45.759
Nephelim were on the earth in those
days and also afterward when the sons of

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00:22:45.799 --> 00:22:48.559
God came into the daughters of man
and they bore children to them. These

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00:22:48.559 --> 00:22:52.400
were the mighty men who were of
old, the men of renown. Mighty

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00:22:52.440 --> 00:22:56.200
men of renown doesn't sound like a
bad thing, and this makes it seem

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00:22:56.240 --> 00:22:59.759
like they were a type of people
who had died out before the flood.

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00:23:00.319 --> 00:23:03.680
The Genesis sixth mention, even if
we ignore the implied dying out of these

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00:23:03.720 --> 00:23:07.640
great men of renown, comes before
the flood. So if the Nephelim were

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00:23:07.759 --> 00:23:10.799
real, which to be clear,
they were not, they would have died

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00:23:10.839 --> 00:23:14.200
out in the flood. The fact
that the Bible mentions them still existing after

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00:23:14.240 --> 00:23:15.920
the flood is a bit of a
problem for people who want to believe that

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00:23:15.960 --> 00:23:21.039
the flood was a literal global flood
that killed everything on the planet except what

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00:23:21.119 --> 00:23:23.839
was on Noah's ark. I mean, the olive tree surviving the flood kind

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00:23:23.839 --> 00:23:27.400
of obviously quashes that view, But
Young Earth creationists don't seem to have a

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00:23:27.440 --> 00:23:30.319
problem with that one for some reason. So why not the Nephelim? Two?

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00:23:30.880 --> 00:23:34.440
Sure it works, I mean it
doesn't, but we'll go with it.

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00:23:34.599 --> 00:23:37.640
Fifth, If the ancient Hebrews were
able to wipe out the Nephelim,

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00:23:37.880 --> 00:23:41.279
then why do you think that the
Nephelim would have successfully wiped out all of

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00:23:41.359 --> 00:23:45.359
humanity? If a tribe with Bronze
age weapons could do it, why would

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00:23:45.440 --> 00:23:51.039
future generations with better weapons have a
problem. Sixth, the Amalekites were not

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00:23:51.119 --> 00:23:53.599
in fact wiped out, at least
not if we believe the Bible, because

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King David had issues with them after
he took over from Saul. Despite Saul

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apparently wiping them all out except for
one dude. That dude must have gotten

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00:24:02.799 --> 00:24:04.119
around quite a bit to build them
back up and do a nation that was

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00:24:04.119 --> 00:24:07.079
a legitimate threat to King David in
just a couple of years. So,

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if I grant your point, humanity
should no longer exist, as the Amalekites

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were never completely wiped out. Given
that humanity continues to exist, I am

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of the opinion that you are wrong, So Jimmy, feel free to study

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00:24:21.759 --> 00:24:25.359
for yourself or remain ignorant and continue
to look like a fool. Thanks for

352
00:24:25.480 --> 00:24:27.359
watching. Don't forget to head to
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